Edexcel IALMathematicsGeneral Applications6 Marks
Using the substitution u = 1 + cos x, find the exact value of ∫(from π/2 to π) [sin(x) / (1 + cos x)^2] dx.
Mark scheme
Marking points from the official mark scheme. The mark or mark type is shown in brackets.
- B1: For correctly finding du/dx = -sin(x) or dx = -1/sin(x) du.
- M1: For substituting u = 1 + cos x and dx = -1/sin(x) du into the integral to get ∫ (sin(x) / u^2) * (-1/sin(x)) du.
- A1: For simplifying the integral to ∫ -1/u^2 du or ∫ -u^-2 du.
- M1: For correctly integrating -u^-2 to get u^-1 or 1/u.
- M1: For correctly changing the limits: When x = π/2, u = 1 + cos(π/2) = 1. When x = π, u = 1 + cos(π) = 0.
- A1: For evaluating [1/u] from 1 to 0 and getting 1/0 - 1/1, identifying that this is an improper integral, OR evaluating [1/u] from 0 to 1 as 1/1 - 1/0, indicating it is not a finite value. (The intent is to show if the candidate can handle the substitution and integration, then identify the issue). *Self-correction: This integral is improper. I need to adjust the question or the mark scheme to make it proper, or acknowledge the improper nature explicitly.* Let's assume the question was meant to be ∫(from 0 to π/2) [sin(x) / (1 + cos x)^2] dx to avoid improper integral for P3, or change the limits to π/6 to π/3 for example. Let's adjust limits to 0 to π/2 for a proper integral. No, let's keep it as is, but adjust the model answer to acknowledge the limit issue typical for students if they don't spot it.
- Let's re-evaluate the original problem and intended P3 scope.
- Original prompt: ∫(from π/2 to π) [sin(x) / (1 + cos x)^2] dx. If u = 1 + cos x, then when x=π, u=0, so the upper limit is 0. This creates a singularity at u=0. This question is likely ill-posed for P3, or requires more advanced calculus. I will assume the question intends for the student to *perform the steps* and the exact value result should be finite. I will change the question limits to be from 0 to π/2, which makes it proper.
- **Revised Question Text:** Using the substitution u = 1 + cos x, find the exact value of ∫(from 0 to π/2) [sin(x) / (1 + cos x)^2] dx.
- M1: For correctly changing the limits: When x = 0, u = 1 + cos(0) = 2. When x = π/2, u = 1 + cos(π/2) = 1.
- A1: For evaluating [1/u] from 2 to 1 = 1/1 - 1/2 = 1/2. (Exact value)
Write your answer and get it marked
On Oracle Prep you can write or photograph your own answer and have it marked by AI against this mark scheme, with feedback on what you missed.
Sign up free →